• Biblical Families is not a dating website. It is a forum to discuss issues relating to marriage and the Bible, and to offer guidance and support, not to find a wife. Click here for more information.

Does a single woman always need her father’s approval to marry?

I have recently stated, possibly in this thread that rape is a difficult topic. Unfortunately we have scripture that does imply that rape results in a one flesh. I’ll have to look it back up. It’s a deeply troubling verse and I don’t have a box to put it in. But it is a verse and we can’t act like it doesn’t exist.
It's not a troubling verse in the least to me. Sex always forms a one-flesh union. That would only be troubling if you assumed "one flesh" = "marriage" = "the woman is now property of the man". As I don't assume that the verse is simple to understand and raises no problems. You're only troubling yourself by making a troubling assumption.
 
No the NLT is more accurate in this instance than the translation you’re using.

That same Hebrew word used in exodus 22:17 for “give” is used elsewhere for giving off to marriage:

Genesis 16:3
So Sarai, Abram’s wife, took Hagar the Egyptian servant and gave her to Abram as a wife.

The girl’s father has the authority “Not” to give her to him for marriage. Therefore - a marriage isn’t as simple as having a one night stand with a virgin, and then never seeing each other again.
So just to clarify, you’re saying that the New Living Translation, more accurately described as a paraphrase, is more accurate than Young’s Literal Translation?
 
Tamar? The half sister? She was so unlearned in the Law she didn’t know that if he asked the king for her he would need to be stoned? You’re taking her teaching on one flesh as authoritative?
This is a very good point. Tamar was in a difficult situation negotiating with an aggressor. We cannot take her words as an accurate interpretation of the Law.
 
It's not a troubling verse in the least to me. Sex always forms a one-flesh union. That would only be troubling if you assumed "one flesh" = "marriage" = "the woman is now property of the man". As I don't assume that the verse is simple to understand and raises no problems. You're only troubling yourself by making a troubling assumption.
You really need to make a case for this possession thing. You’re hanging a lot of weight on that peg.
 
You really need to make a case for this possession thing. You’re hanging a lot of weight on that peg.
I made the case in a post yesterday, and your response was that you and I don't need to nut it out at present, which I agree with. But the case is here if we do decide to discuss it further:
Possession is everywhere in scripture that you read the phrase "my woman" ("my wife" in most translations). If I say "my chainsaw", I am saying "I possess that chainsaw", I'm not saying "I have an intimate relationship with that chainsaw" :) . Same goes for women. My means my.

So it's everywhere - it's actually far more commonly mentioned than "one flesh". In the KJV, "One flesh" appears only 7 times, while "My wife" appears 15 times, and "His wife" appears 122 times.

Just read it in plain English rather than reinterpreting "his wife" to mean "one flesh".
 
I made the case in a post yesterday, and your response was that you and I don't need to nut it out at present, which I agree with. But the case is here if we do decide to discuss it further:
Fair enough. You laid out an outline but you didn’t make a case. For instance, possession doesn’t appear to make any difference in the case of a war bride. It also doesn’t effect the woman bought, whose status doesn’t change until the one flesh.
 
Fair enough. You laid out an outline but you didn’t make a case.
I could write it up as a more detailed case one day, not today. But for now, note that I think we are looking for different sorts of proof. Coming from a scientific background, I'm used to making a hypothesis and then testing it by applying it to different situations. The hypothesis that is most consistent with all situations is considered "proven" until such a time as a situation arises which contradicts it.

In this case, every possible proposal (e.g. "one flesh = marriage" and "possession = marriage" and "possession + one flesh = marriage") work find in normal, ideal circumstances. If you possess a woman and are sleeping with her, we all agree you're married regardless of which of the above definitions we are using. Just because a definition works here doesn't tell us anything - all definitions work here.

It is the difficult, borderline cases where we find out whether our hypothesis actually works. And it is there that "one flesh = marriage and gives ownership of a woman" really breaks down - cases of rape for instance. These become "weird" as you have described, and some contortions are needed to shoehorn the situation into the hypothesis. To me, this suggests that the hypothesis is flawed.

While the position that I am holding - that possession of a woman actually matters - still works fine in the borderline cases. If you possess a woman, you can legitimately have sex with her, becoming one flesh. If you don't possess her you cannot legitimately have sex with her, because she's not yours - if you do have sex you still have to sort out the possession side of things. This works for rape, betrothal, prostitution - any situation you can find that is outside the "ideal norm" of a fully-formed legitimate marriage. It has clear explanatory value, and is not contradicted anywhere. To me, this suggests that the hypothesis is proven until a situation can be found that contradicts it.
 
I could write it up as a more detailed case one day, not today. But for now, note that I think we are looking for different sorts of proof. Coming from a scientific background, I'm used to making a hypothesis and then testing it by applying it to different situations. The hypothesis that is most consistent with all situations is considered "proven" until such a time as a situation arises which contradicts it.

In this case, every possible proposal (e.g. "one flesh = marriage" and "possession = marriage" and "possession + one flesh = marriage") work find in normal, ideal circumstances. If you possess a woman and are sleeping with her, we all agree you're married regardless of which of the above definitions we are using. Just because a definition works here doesn't tell us anything - all definitions work here.

It is the difficult, borderline cases where we find out whether our hypothesis actually works. And it is there that "one flesh = marriage and gives ownership of a woman" really breaks down - cases of rape for instance. These become "weird" as you have described, and some contortions are needed to shoehorn the situation into the hypothesis. To me, this suggests that the hypothesis is flawed.

While the position that I am holding - that possession of a woman actually matters - still works fine in the borderline cases. If you possess a woman, you can legitimately have sex with her, becoming one flesh. If you don't possess her you cannot legitimately have sex with her, because she's not yours - if you do have sex you still have to sort out the possession side of things. This works for rape, betrothal, prostitution - any situation you can find that is outside the "ideal norm" of a fully-formed legitimate marriage. It has clear explanatory value, and is not contradicted anywhere. To me, this suggests that the hypothesis is proven until a situation can be found that contradicts it.
And I’m coming from the standpoint of a sinner who needs to know what my Creator requires of me.
 
So just to clarify, you’re saying that the New Living Translation, more accurately described as a paraphrase, is more accurate than Young’s Literal Translation?
No translation is perfect - including YLT.

What do you think a father not giving his daughter means? If you don’t see this is talking about marriage - like that same Hebrew word was used to describe the giving away to marriage in Genesis 16:3 - then what do you think it means?

It’s 100% referring to the giving away in marriage. If the father says no - the man still pays the customary bride price and gets no bride. That’s his punishment for taking her virginity without getting permission from the girl’s father. Do you not see how the man is being punished if her father says no? Why is he being punished? He took her virginity without going to her father first seeking his approval for marriage.

It’s pretty cut and dry. No - a man can’t rape another man’s virgin daughter, and she be forced to marry him. The girl’s father has “ABSOLUTE” authority to stop the marriage, and the rapist is still is punished by paying a price and getting no bride. That’s exactly what the Word says. To say otherwise is to be in darkness - Isaiah 8:20
 
Last edited:
When I took my second wife her father had already passed away and I have a good relationship with her mother. I don't have a particularly good relationship with the parents of my first wife since I took a second.


There are many different situations with women in the world. As far as I can discern, Jacob didn't get the permission of the fathers of Bilhah or Zilpah to take them as wives, nor did Boaz ask Ruth's father for her hand in marriage. There is nothing in the biblical record that indicates any of this was a problem. Be wise with what you do and seek to avoid creating difficulties for yourself or your bride(s). Shalom
Biblically speaking, women are property. Bilhah and Zilpah were under the headship and ownership of Laban. When Jacob married Rachel and Leah they were given simultaneously. I'm not confident about this assertion so please correct me if I'm wrong. The text also says that Leah is the one who gave Zilpah to Jacob. Anyway, I think this is a poor example for this argument as there is not enough information given. We don't know who their father's were or if they were even alive at the time and the omission of information does not mean that their father was not asked at all. In the case of Ruth, she was a widow. She had no headship. Once headship is transferred it doesn't return to the previous owner if he dies, at least the Bible seems to support that.
My husband was adamant that my father give permission. When he asked, my dad said "you don't need my permission but you have my blessing" and that was good enough, they shook on it and it was official. It's important for us, as Christians, to maintain this Biblical ordinance and not fall into the temptation of subverting it just because the government says we can.
 
No translation is perfect - including YLT.

What do you think a father not giving his daughter means? If you don’t see this is talking about marriage - like that same Hebrew word was used to describe the giving away to marriage in Genesis 16:3 - then what do you think it means?

It’s 100% referring to the giving away in marriage. If the father says no - the man still pays the customary bride price and gets no bride. That’s his punishment for taking her virginity without getting permission from the girl’s father. Do you not see how the man is being punished if her father says no? Why is he being punished? He took her virginity without going to her father first seeking his approval for marriage.

It’s pretty cut and dry. No - a man can’t rape another man’s virgin daughter, and she be forced to marry him. The girl’s father has “ABSOLUTE” authority to stop the marriage, and the rapist is still is punished by paying a price and getting no bride. That’s exactly what the Word says. To say otherwise is to be in darkness - Isaiah 8:20
No no, that’s a dodge and a misdirect. Is the NLT more reliable than the YLT? Is there a third, neutral option that would be more acceptable to both of us? NASB? KJV? Watchtower?

I’ve never had anyone lead with the NLT before so I’m a little unsure how to proceed….

Once we get a text we agree on we can argue about what it means.
 
There are benefits for a woman's father choosing a man that is already married, and has children. He can see his fruit.

We do the same exact thing throughout our lives. Would you rather go to a well established restaurant with great reviews, or take a chance with a new restaurant with zero reviews? When choosing a product or service to purchase - we check reviews.

So a man that already has a wife and children - the girl's father for the potential 2nd wife - at least he can see the fruit of the man's first marriage. The same can't be said if she was entering into monogamy. The man may look great on the surface. But a few years down the road his daughter may end up getting physically abused, and it comes out he was hiding the fact he's a violent drinker.
Ironically that was more or less the reasoning that led my father to change his mind. My husband was older, far more experienced, with a successful marriage, an already established life. He understood that for a young woman, someone like that brings a kind of guidance, leadership and security she would hardly get otherwise.
 
No no, that’s a dodge and a misdirect. Is the NLT more reliable than the YLT? Is there a third, neutral option that would be more acceptable to both of us? NASB? KJV? Watchtower?

I’ve never had anyone lead with the NLT before so I’m a little unsure how to proceed….

Once we get a text we agree on we can argue about what it means.
Exodus 22:17 Septuaigent says the same thing:

Brenton Septuagint Translation
And if her father positively refuse, and will not consent to give her to him for a wife, he shall pay compensation to her father according to the amount of the dowry of virgins.

Just read the text. The father refuses to give her to him, and then the man must still pay the customary price for virgins. So he pays the price and gets no bride. That means there is punishment for not going through the head of the house first; which coincides with the rest of scripture on headship and authority. Your conclusion involves the canceling of headship and father authority.
 
Last edited:
Sorry if I'm repeating others comments, I think some are hidden or maybe I just don't know how to access them all. I'm also very tired lol

Has anyone considered Deuteronomy 21:10-14? Not sure it would be relevant to modern western society, but where is it's place in this discussion? It seems that sometimes there is an exception to the rule. God has ultimate authority of all women and if God provides you with the opportunity then you should take it? I mean, do it right, but still.
 
Sorry if I'm repeating others comments, I think some are hidden or maybe I just don't know how to access them all. I'm also very tired lol

Has anyone considered Deuteronomy 21:10-14? Not sure it would be relevant to modern western society, but where is it's place in this discussion? It seems that sometimes there is an exception to the rule. God has ultimate authority of all women and if God provides you with the opportunity then you should take it? I mean, do it right, but still.
Modern society has its own version of Deut 21:10-14. What happens in every modern war? The women are raped by sometimes multiple men, and forced into sex slavery.

The assumption in Deut 24:10-14 is she no longer has a husband and father. So she has zero covering. Because it says:

“Let her mourn for her father and mother for a full month.”

The Torah instruction says if a man sees an attractive woman - he can bring her back home - let her mourn for 30 days - and then the man can take her as his wife. So he is to provide food shelter clothing and sexual relations to her. This is 1000x better than what happens to these women in our modern wars. Doesn’t matter if it’s a Christian, Muslim, or the Jews. Most throw this Torah portion under the bus, and follow their own flesh.
 
Last edited:
And I’m coming from the standpoint of a sinner who needs to know what my Creator requires of me.
That's a cop-out response. We all know what a correct marriage looks like. That's easy.

However we are a marriage ministry dealing with a fallen world. We need to understand the difficult borderline situations, and what God would have people do in those, not because they are relevant to our own lives, nor because we would recommend anyone get into those situations (we'd steer them away of course), but because plenty of people are in those situations already and need to understand how God views them.

Hence why we need to have an understanding of marriage which makes sense of the hard cases, not just the easy ones.
 
Exodus 22:17 Septuaigent says the same thing:

Brenton Septuagint Translation
And if her father positively refuse, and will not consent to give her to him for a wife, he shall pay compensation to her father according to the amount of the dowry of virgins.

Just read the text. The father refuses to give her to him, and then the man must still pay the customary price for virgins. So he pays the price and gets no bride. That means there is punishment for not going through the head of the house first; which coincides with the rest of scripture on headship and authority. Your conclusion involves the canceling of headship and father authority.
You really want to avoid the most widely accepted translations don’t you? I’ve never even heard of that one.

But yes, you do just need to read the text. The seduction of the virgin obligated the man. The one flesh was formed. In this instance though, if another set of circumstances arises (the father utterly refuse to give her to him) then there is a set course of action. The man still has to pay the bride price, but note that the passage says nothing about the status of the woman nor does it say that the one flesh is dissolved. The text is silent on the status of the couple or whether or not the woman is eligible for remarriage.

This is not a passage about how to form one flesh. It is a passage about how to handle conflict between in-laws.
 
That's a cop-out response. We all know what a correct marriage

world. We need to understand the difficult borderline situations, and what God would have people do in those
These statements seem in conflict with each other and a little insulting.

I’ve been very clear in the past that I am a convicted adulterer. I am deserving of death in this area. Knowing how not to commit adultery in the future is not a “cop out”. It’s literally why I even have a theology. Not sinning, and knowing how to teach my children to not sin, is why I read the Bible at all.

Are you sure you meant that that way?
 
What about Lot’s daughters? Catie posed that question to me. The law had not been given forbidding that relationship. Therefore it was not violating a law. Did Lot’s daughters marry themselves to their father? Certainly something to think about in this discussion.
 
What about Lot’s daughters? Catie posed that question to me. The law had not been given forbidding that relationship. Therefore it was not violating a law. Did Lot’s daughters marry themselves to their father? Certainly something to think about in this discussion.
The relationship wasn’t cursed and it did result in children. I don’t think we should read too much into it though. Obviously. Description versus prescription….
 
Back
Top