I am pretty sure that only applies if there is seed of copulation, and if he keep his seed to himself, there is noUnder the law, sexual congress, (even with one's own wife) makes one ceremonially unclean until evening.
Also, I'm not sure that being defiled and beingceremoniallyunclean are synonymous.
You know I've wanted to ask that of a few people, not @Slumberfreeze, but few who by what they post at best completely despise women and think them worthless. I think slumber just enjoys making us scratch our heads.Reading your posts, @Slumberfreeze, a question keeps rising in my mind. You seem to have a great many reasons why having more than one wife is at best a rather unsavory prospect, so my question is, why would you want a second?
A dysfunctional family gets more dysfunctional as it scales; a functional family gets more functional as it scales. Either way, justifying mia as 'one' on the ground that plural men are obviously weighed down with domestic responsibilities is bunk. That doesn't mean 'mia' isn't properly translated 'one', just means that "the man is too busy" is a lame justification for determining that 'mia' should be translated 'one'.
The only reason that makes sense to me at this point is the Augustinian one ('of course polygamy is okay, duh, but we don't do it today because of our "Roman custom"')
You seem to have a great many reasons why having more than one wife is at best a rather unsavory prospect
so my question is, why would you want a second?
Yeah, makes sense.I think there is a distinct difference between's Pauls "all things to all men" approach and Augustine/early church father approach of "must do it this way because it's wrong (by our culture) but if you corner me on it I can't condemn you" approach.
yes...I agree...he was being 'all things to all men' 1 Corinthians 9:19-23Agreed, but that doesn't preclude the possibility that Paul just might have counseled a low profile within certain contexts, such as Roman culture. Remember, Paul's the guy who said an elder should be of good report outside the body....
Its not just that, but generally there is a inner imbalance when the complimentary opposite is not present to balance and complete the male - and vice versa.I still say the reason is right in the verse... he needs to have at least one so that we know he can rule his own house well... plain and simple
Women worthless?? why would anyone think that? and why would they want them if they do?You know I've wanted to ask that of a few people, not @Slumberfreeze, but few who by what they post at best completely despise women and think them worthless. I think slumber just enjoys making us scratch our heads.
Yeah this actually expresses better the point I was trying to make. I'm starting to see the opposite to be true; if the verse means '1' then how can this be?I'm going to try to do this from memory instead of cut-and-paste, line-by-line.
@rockfox, you and I agree, sort of; you took half my sentence and argued with it, but the other half spoke to that. The idea that a plural man is necessarily "too busy" and therefore "doesn't have time" to be an elder is BS. To the extent that's actually true in individual cases, it's because modern women aren't so helpful. I call that reasoning "assumptions", you take those observations as given in this culture, but we're on the same page. A dysfunctional family gets more dysfunctional as it scales; a functional family gets more functional as it scales. Either way, justifying mia as 'one' on the ground that plural men are obviously weighed down with domestic responsibilities is bunk. That doesn't mean 'mia' isn't properly translated 'one', just means that "the man is too busy" is a lame justification for determining that 'mia' should be translated 'one'.
I disagree with this notion. Modern's invest far more time into their children than the ancients and pre-moderns (but to much less effect) and expect far less out of them by way of help around the house.
Not only that but servants/slaves were far more common in ancient times.
Additionally, this idea that pre-modern women were all uneducated and illiterate is part of feminist myth-making. Roman women were expected to be educated and the boys and girls were taught together.
By way of example for the difference: I can tell you by experience the average 6 year old Amish kid (who comes from a pre-modern culture stuck in time) is more useful help around the house than the typical modern American teenager/pre-teen and I'd gladly pit an Amish teen girl against any fully grown American women.
The same goes for the helpmeetery value of women then vs. now. Many modern women can't even cook today; pre-modern they could not just cook, but cook well for large numbers of people and produce that food (milk the cow, grow the garden, slaughter the chicken, etc). And many other things: do laundry (by hand), chop wood, build structures, harness the horse to go to town, etc. The average women today was a single child or had one sibling and is helpless with kids; pre-modern, she was part of a large family and has years of experience with infants.
I knew a programmer in a very happy marriage where they ALWAYS ate out or ordered in. They never cooked ever.I speak of the modern American context. I hear European women can cook.
Which culture and at what time period was this? This sounds like more myth making.
This is all the hazard of trying to interpret scripture by historical knowledge. It falls to easily to modern misconceptions. I've heard this approach brought to many different scriptures, often with contradictory stories about the ancients told by different teachers. Even when the teachers are being honest, our knowledge of ancient life is fractured and incomplete and complicated by the multicultural aspect of the Roman empire and the changes within their own culture over time.
Wait, is that the "only begotten"?Like, mono mia gynaika?