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Must a deacon be monogamous? What does Greek heis/mia/en mean here?

To say that a plural husband would be 'too busy to be an elder' reflects a lot of assumptions about family life that are grounded in the mess our culture raises us on that sees wives and children as a financial and emotional drain.

Not just assumptions; the lived life of many men is that wives like to monopolize their time and attention and pull them away from hobbies and friends. Its no surprise they'd think multiple wives would leave them too distracted to help in church.

And it's not an entirely bad perspective either...

One who is unmarried is concerned about the things of the Lord, how he may please the Lord; but one who is married is concerned about the things of the world, how he may please his wife, and his interests are divided. The woman who is unmarried, and the virgin, is concerned about the things of the Lord, that she may be holy both in body and spirit; but one who is married is concerned about the things of the world, how she may please her husband.

That statement by Paul in 1 Cor 7 is true as a general principle; irrespective of the context. But I don't think this principle necessarily disqualifies husbands of multiple wives (presently) from eldership anymore than it could mean someone with 1 wife is disqualified by it. But it is possible. Personally I think I'd have more time for such things had I multiple wives. But I opine out of ignorance.

What's that thing in Proverbs 31 about the man sitting in the gates with the elders? Oh yeah, verse 23: "Her husband is known in the gates, where he sits among the elders of the land." If that's true with one "virtuous woman', why wouldn't it also be true with two or three? She's busting her rump running everything, he's hanging out with the other elders making important decisions.

Indeed I think it would be.

That leaves cultural context as the 'last argument standing' for one-and-only-one wife—an argument I am personally open to but don't necessarily accept.

It is entirely possible that Paul, 'became all things to all men', who stated elders should have a good reputation in the community, would want them to have but 1 wife being as they were forming churches across the monogamous Roman world.
 
I’m sure this question has been asked on here before, in fact I may have asked it, but never got any answer.

Why does Paul use Mia in chapter three and then Heis in chapter five for almost the same exact phrase? Why not just use the same word for both if they mean exactly the same thing?

1 Timothy 3:2 KJV
[2] A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one [mia] wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;


1 Timothy 5:9 KJV
[9] Let not a widow be taken into the number under threescore years old, having been the wife of one [heis] man,

Maybe there is some mundane reason that it is used, but inquiring minds want to know :)
 
@Slumberfreeze beat me to the punch.

There's still some unresolved issues but I personally see "episkopos" as one who visited the sick all over town(s), not an overseer, etc and as such is also inappropriate for someone like a patriarch (though @Shibboleth makes a good case for "overseer")
To be fair, @IshChayil convinced me that visitation, especially of the sick, is one of the duties of an overseer/shepherd/elder.

As far as the main question of this thread, I agree with Ish, that the cases where heis/mia are translated "first"are idiomatic of a specific Hebrew construction that doesn't apply here, and with Slumberfreeze, that one probably just means one.

That said, it really seems to me that Paul is going even a step beyond that, and by using the specific phrase "a one-woman man", is deliberately refering to the Roman concept of a univira -- "a one-man woman" i.e. a sexually modest woman who had only ever been married once. This would exclude those who remarry, though it's not clear to me if it would also exclude divorcees.

Wikipedia said:
Romans idealized the woman who was univira, a "one-man" woman, married once, even though by the time of Cicero and Julius Caesar, divorce was common, the subject of gossip rather than social stigma.

So why would Paul reference a system of Roman virtues (instead of the less strict OT law)? I don't know for sure, but I been coming to the same conclusion as @andrew, with regards to one's reputation outside of the assembly, especially in a largely monogamous culture that was steeped in divorce and remarriage.

This isn't necessarily the way I'd like for it to read, but I'm calling it as I see it, in light of the linguistic and cultural evidence.

Edit: Whether this was a universal command for all overseers & deacons across all time and space, or just a strong recommendation to a specific congregation within specific cultural context (forgoing Christian liberty to became all things to all people), I'll leave others to argue.
 
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That said, it really seems to me that Paul is going even a step beyond that, and by using the specific phrase "a one-woman man", is deliberately refering to the Roman concept of a univira -- "a one-man woman" i.e. a sexually modest woman who had only ever been married once. This would exclude those who remarry, though it's not clear to me if it would also exclude divorcees.

It would appear that Anna in Luke 2:36 is also one of these women. I’m not familiar enough with this in Hebrew culture to say if it was the precursor or Rome. It could be that it was a first century custom that was recognized transculturally.
 
I mean, I think the principle still stands (that someone who has gone through a divorce might not be the wisest choice for an elder/pastor, although certainly there are exceptions and discernment would be called for...
But ok, so be it. In that case, what were the other possibilities linguistically?
Check the initial post for that breakdown.
Here is more breakdown including several examples from various translations

Summary: in koine Greek in the time period in question it seems to almost always mean "1" or "lone" as in the "lone fig tree".
Sometimes it comes across in English better to say "a, an" as the literal "1" is awkward in English sometimes "I saw 1 Eagle" just as easily comes across as "I saw an Eagle" and often flows better.
We weren't able, however, to prove that it could not have meant "a wife". It seems this usage of mia comes later in Greek but we couldn't eliminate it as possible in Paul's time.
So: "1 wife" or "a wife" still remain plausible though the "a wife" is much harder to defend for the time period of the language (1st century).
 
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Something @rockfox & @andrew mentioned which I've been thinking about for a while I'd just like to nuance; the concept of our wives actually helping us to accomplish more in our life mission.
In the past, I've argued against the whole "women should not speak in church" bit from the perspective that women in the first century were illiterate and as such did not know scripture; that's also why it was a shame for them to be instructing fellas who often did know scripture. I see this changing dynamic in play here.
In the first century, the dynamic of how much time having a family took away from a righteous man who cared that the kids were instructed properly (i.e. he needed to teach them the bible himself or hire tutors he trusted since the women couldn't do it) is quite possibly/probably different than the dynamic in the first world today.
The women folk today certainly are capable (often moreso) of teaching scripture to kiddlets and shuttling people around (back in the day this was looked on as sinful if a woman was transporting people around without a man), etc. so it very well may be the case a well managed household with many ladies today is more capable of -insert whatever congregational mission/office you want here- than they would have been back in the day. If you went to Afghanistan today and that's where you got your wives from and they are illiterate, it's kind of hard to get them to make the powerpoint slides for the worship music lyrics... you gotta do it all yourself men.
The helpmeetery (inspired by @Slumberfreeze propensity to coin terms) may have been much less back then than today.
Not sure if I expressed that as succinctly as I would of liked but I think this accents the value of proper exegesis; not only understanding linguistically what's going on in the text but also the audience, and what they were dealing with culturally so we can import that to what we are dealing with culturally today; it's very very very different today. our womenfolk know a lot more today than they were allowed to know back then. One of the beautiful things about biblical plural marriage is the very fact that we can select wives who bring different skills and blessings to the family.

So while I actually come in with @Slumberfreeze and @Shibboleth in understanding the text to literally be saying the guy needs to have no more than 1 wife; I see we have the freedom to move in certain areas when we extrapolate out the reasoning for such a restriction (offices were either lowly for guys who are patriarchs [you don't stick a CEO in an internship position] or too time-consuming based on the culture of the day). I've come to the conclusion we have the freedom to move in these areas as our households are in order; of course checking with the holy spirit and carefully considering as it seems our default positions should be "don't do it" but the spirit of the command is the most important here combined with what is most edifying for the kingdom. To sideline righteous men who have their stuff in order because we're trying to letter-of-the-law a verse which is quite difficult to exegete is really missing the point. That said, I think the fella who can manage his wives/kids so well that they take less of his time rather than more is the exception to the rule (I'm talking to you Andrew) ;)
To be fair, polygamists back in the day also have a heck of a lot more kids than we do today. Think 12+

**disclaimer - I'm not advocating female pastors, just commenting on general silence in the assembly vs being able to comment / ask questions also being able to lead when capable men aren't around visa vi Deborah. I hope we won't spiral off topic into that subject.
 
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In the first century, the dynamic of how much time having a family took away from a righteous man who cared that the kids were instructed properly (i.e. he needed to teach them the bible himself or hire tutors he trusted since the women couldn't do it) is quite possibly/probably different than the dynamic in the first world today.

I disagree with this notion. Modern's invest far more time into their children than the ancients and pre-moderns (but to much less effect) and expect far less out of them by way of help around the house. Not only that but servants/slaves were far more common in ancient times. Additionally, this idea that pre-modern women were all uneducated and illiterate is part of feminist myth-making. Roman women were expected to be educated and the boys and girls were taught together.

By way of example for the difference: I can tell you by experience the average 6 year old Amish kid (who comes from a pre-modern culture stuck in time) is more useful help around the house than the typical modern American teenager/pre-teen and I'd gladly pit an Amish teen girl against any fully grown American women.

The same goes for the helpmeetery value of women then vs. now. Many modern women can't even cook today; pre-modern they could not just cook, but cook well for large numbers of people and produce that food (milk the cow, grow the garden, slaughter the chicken, etc). And many other things: do laundry (by hand), chop wood, build structures, harness the horse to go to town, etc. The average women today was a single child or had one sibling and is helpless with kids; pre-modern, she was part of a large family and has years of experience with infants.

I speak of the modern American context. I hear European women can cook.

Even if the wives were uneducated and it fell the the husband, this perspective suffers from a modern view of education like that of public schooling; which takes excessive amounts of time and exclusive attention.

I've argued against the whole "women should not speak in church" bit from the perspective that women in the first century were illiterate and as such did not know scripture; that's also why it was a shame for them to be instructing fellas who often did know scripture.

Not only does this not fit what we know of the Roman world at that time, but this contradicts what Paul himself says elsewhere in scripture. It's not that they're illiterate, it's that they're more easily deceived and have been put under submission to man by God. It wouldn't matter if they were literate and better educated than any of the men.

(back in the day this was looked on as sinful if a woman was transporting people around without a man)

Which culture and at what time period was this? This sounds like more myth making.

This is all the hazard of trying to interpret scripture by historical knowledge. It falls to easily to modern misconceptions. I've heard this approach brought to many different scriptures, often with contradictory stories about the ancients told by different teachers. Even when the teachers are being honest, our knowledge of ancient life is fractured and incomplete and complicated by the multicultural aspect of the Roman empire and the changes within their own culture over time.
 
I'm going to try to do this from memory instead of cut-and-paste, line-by-line.

@rockfox, you and I agree, sort of; you took half my sentence and argued with it, but the other half spoke to that. The idea that a plural man is necessarily "too busy" and therefore "doesn't have time" to be an elder is BS. To the extent that's actually true in individual cases, it's because modern women aren't so helpful. I call that reasoning "assumptions", you take those observations as given in this culture, but we're on the same page. A dysfunctional family gets more dysfunctional as it scales; a functional family gets more functional as it scales. Either way, justifying mia as 'one' on the ground that plural men are obviously weighed down with domestic responsibilities is bunk. That doesn't mean 'mia' isn't properly translated 'one', just means that "the man is too busy" is a lame justification for determining that 'mia' should be translated 'one'.

@Slumberfreeze, you know I accept your determination that mia should be translated one here and respect your commitment to the "that's what it says even if we don't like it" principle. I'm in the same boat (what God is actually saying is more important than whether that's what we wanted Him to say) and have said before and many times that if mia=one is what people sincerely believe after independent study (not regurgitation of pop dogma), I'm fine with not being an elder in their church. Respect for conviction, and everything Paul says about our not being the boss of each other, seems to me to be appropriate here. I just don't see 'one' as the definitive translation based on grammar rules alone, as per @IshChayil's well-laid-out arguments above and elsewhere on the site. If you're settled on the grammar, then that settles it. I don't see the grammar as being so open-and-shut, and leave it to individuals to 'be convinced in their own mind'.

@Cap, you win the Rockfox Prize for opening my eyes to something I've never really considered before in this context, in two years of intensive study, 20 years of living it, and four years of engagement with this ministry. (Apparently an old dog can learn new tricks, it just takes longer....;)) In this case, it's what you said about advice for married men. I wouldn't go for marriage advice to a single guy. I don't think childless women should be school teachers (uh oh...). And I don't see how a plural guy is going to recognize a mono guy as a tribal elder if that 'elder' can't counsel and advise him with any experience or wisdom through the kind of transition we're talking about here.

To recap: I'm presently seeing 'first' as off the list, as discussed by IC above (the Hebrew Idiom argument). I see 'a' and 'one' as both still arguably viable, with maybe a 60/40 or 70/30 lean (YMMV) towards 'one', but without being able to positively rule out 'a', so that brings us to context and the whole counsel of scripture. I still think 'a' makes more sense than 'one' legally and logically, but am open to the idea that "all things to all men" Paul would have had some reason for coaching Timothy and Titus to appoint only men of one woman. The only reason that makes sense to me at this point is the Augustinian one ('of course polygamy is okay, duh, but we don't do it today because of our "Roman custom"'). That would make sense for a first century guy charged with taking the gospel to the Gentiles who didn't want to pick a fight over a non-salvation issue while he's fomenting a spiritual revolution (cf. Martin Luther in the matter of Philip).

I find our situation today a bit different (to put it mildly). While the Christian ghetto continues to flog monogamy-only, there's a big world out there, and the ruling oligarchy is not just breaking down the family (we're way beyond that), they're breaking down the basic understanding of what it means to be a man or a woman. If we're not already entering into "seven women will take hold of one man" territory, then we will be soon (and I'd argue we already are, we're just behind the curve and being reactive rather than proactive).

So I'm okay with mia=a, and as a matter of translation I'm okay with those who believe mia=one if we agree that what's important is that "each be convinced in his own mind". I'd say further that even if mia=one for Timothy and Titus, that doesn't necessarily mean, and certainly doesn't prove, that Paul's word to TnT back then is God's word to us now, any more than Jesus's instruction to one guy to "sell all you have" back then has us all running to auction off all our stuff (although it seems to have worked for Francis...).

The bottom line—for me—is that I expect to see more fellowships with plural elders appearing as a matter of practical necessity, and some that restrict themselves to mono elders for conscience' sake or due to practical necessities of their own. And I'm speaking here of fellowships outside the system; what happens within the government/corporate system will depend upon whichever way our culture goes.

More later; gotta run.
 
A dysfunctional family gets more dysfunctional as it scales; a functional family gets more functional as it scales.
Too true.
And a barely functional family (which most are) becomes dysfunctional as it scales.
 
Great point.
 
Maybe not highest righteousness, but I have to believe there is some reason why Jesus does not admit married men into His 144,000 company. I have no doctrines, just suspicions.

Is it only "virgin" men who are a part of the 144,000? Male virginity isn't something that shows up anywhere else in scripture that I'm aware of.

I have read it as men undefiled by women, which in theory a raging polygamist could be if he had followed all of God's Laws on the topic. Am I missing something?
 
So what happened to the consensus view that word meant "a" ad in one of? I've never heard it referred to a first until this thread.
 
Look at that beautiful disaster.
Free association:


Fathers, love your daughters.

We now return you to your regularly scheduled programming....
 
Is it only "virgin" men who are a part of the 144,000?

"These are they which were not defiled by women, for they are virgins"

The word used is 'parthenos' which is translated in every case as virgin. I don't think the concept allows for those who are chastely married. Also it says they are not 'defiled' (soiled) with women. Under the law, sexual congress, (even with one's own wife) makes one ceremonially unclean until evening.

Male virginity isn't something that shows up anywhere else in scripture that I'm aware of.

You know what? I think it might... That thought has bothered me too but I'm looking at it now and I think bachuwr (H970) is the male analog to bethuwla (H1330), the two show up in tight association to each other a lot, anyways. I crave the opinion of others in this matter, though.
 
So what happened to the consensus view
Mia is translated as 'first', 'one', and 'a' within the NT, so those have always been three contenders for the title. The only thing that happened with 'first' in this thread was @IshChayil's demonstrating that when 'first' is used to translate mia it matches closely with a Hebrew idiom and is probably based on that. From my pov, 'first' was always the weakest choice, and at this point I'm following IC and regarding it as out of the race.
 
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